Stats
Does prevalence affect sensitivity (January 31, 2008).
Dear Professor Mean, Does lowering the prevalence of a disease have an
effect on sensitivity?
Do you know how to lower the prevalence of a disease? If so, there's a job
for you in the Public Health Service. Sorry, I couldn't resist.
What you mean to say is: does the performance of a test change when it is
used in a low prevalence population compared to a high prevalence population?
Certainly we know that positive predictive value suffers in a low
prevalence population. When you are looking for a needle in a haystack, you
get swamped by a bunch of false positives. That's why we stop testing for
certain diseases like respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) when they are "out of
season."
Does sensitivity change in a low prevalence population? Well, any time you
change the population that you are testing, there is a chance that sensitivity
will change. So the answer it, yes it could change.
There's an unspoken assumption that sensitivity is unchanged by prevalence,
but there are lots of counter examples of this. What is probably happening is
that sensitivity is not affected directly by prevalence, but rather by
differences in the populations. For example, a low prevalence population may
include more patients with milder disease and the high prevalence population
may include more patients with serious disease. Since serious disease is
easier to diagnose, the sensitivity is better in a high prevalence population.
Now this is all speculative, of course, because we can't take a child and
randomly assign them to either a high prevalence group or a low prevalence
group. So we take low birthweight kids (1500 to 2500 grams) and assess the
performance of a diagnostic test for a common condition in preemies like
Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD). Then take very low birthweight kids (under
1500 grams) and assess the performance of a diagnostic test for BPD. If the
test performs better in the very low birthweight kids, is it because this
group has a higher prevalence, because BPD is more overt and easier to
diagnose in this group, or because of an unmeasured factor that is present in
very low birthweight kids that makes the test perform well?
We can't disentangle these alternate explanations because we can't
randomize patients into birthweight categories. That gets at my sarcastic
comment earlier. Because we can't experimentally manipulate prevalence,
anything that I and others say is driven more by opinion than by fact.
For what it's worth, if sensitivity is affected by prevalence, it is
certainly affected to a much lower degree than positive predictive value.
n
2008-07-08. Category: Ask Professor Mean,
Category: Diagnostic testing